None of the three UAE regulators publishes past pharmacist papers in its official exam guidance. MOHAP states that individual questions and answers cannot be disclosed, and DoH points candidates to its exam team by email for CBT study materials. So the useful way to practise is to know what each authority publishes about the paper and then work through questions written to that outline. This page does both. For a route through every outline topic, see the Myndaq UAE pharmacist course; for eligibility, titles and documents, read the UAE pharmacist licence guide.
The exam pattern each authority publishes
Each regulator publishes different detail and can change its format, so check its portal before booking. Every figure below is as published by that authority when checked on 20 September 2026.
DHA Dubai
DHA's Healthcare Professional Licensing Assessment Guideline (CBT) lists the Pharmacist exam as:
- 150 questions in multiple-choice format
- 3 hours, which DHA says includes registration and the process introduction, not only exam content
- Pass score 60%
- Exam code PHO5481, listed fee USD240
- delivered at Prometric centres after you generate an Eligibility ID in Sheryan
The result appears in Sheryan as Pass or Fail only; DHA states your score is not shared. The same guideline lists Clinical Pharmacy (150 questions, 3 hours, pass score 70%, code PHO5482) and Pharmacy Technician (150 questions, 3 hours, pass score 55%, code PHT5451) separately. DHA also reserves the right to change the content, format or pass score without updating the document.
DoH Abu Dhabi
DoH's Licensing Procedure Manual (circular 151 of 2024) places Pharmacist in its CBT group with 50 to 100 MCQs over 1 to 2 hours, booked through TAMM and delivered by Pearson VUE. All exams are in English. DoH publishes no percentage pass mark; its FAQ says the pass depends on a cut-score set internally. Results are announced as Pass or Fail on TAMM within 24 hours. Clinical Pharmacist is listed for an oral exam plus CBT, unless you passed the pharmacist exam in the past five years or hold a MOHAP or DHA pharmacist licence.
MOHAP
MOHAP's evaluation service page says Prometric results are processed automatically and shown as Pass or Fail against a minimum passing score of 60%, that the maximum is three attempts with no fourth, and that individual questions and answers cannot be disclosed. It publishes no pharmacist question count or duration, so use your booking notice for those.
For booking, ID and result timing, see the UAE Prometric and Pearson VUE exam-day guide.
What the DHA outline covers
DHA's assessment guideline lists 14 coverage areas for the Pharmacist exam:
- toxicology
- medicinal chemistry
- sterile and non-sterile compounding
- pharmaceutics and biopharmaceutics
- pharmacognosy and dietary supplements
- pharmacy calculation and compounding
- clinical pharmacogenomics
- infection control
- pharmacokinetics
- pharmaceutical care and disease state management
- medication safety
- over-the-counter medication
- pharmacy law and ethics
- clinical pharmacology and therapeutic decision making
Its reference list includes the APhA Complete Review for Pharmacy, Comprehensive Pharmacy Review, Goodman and Gilman, Shargel's Applied Biopharmaceutics and Pharmacokinetics, and Ansel's Pharmaceutical Calculations. DHA publishes no topic weightings, so treat any percentage split elsewhere as unofficial. MOHAP says it provides no specific study references.
How to use these practice questions
The 12 questions below are original practice questions written by Myndaq in the single-best-answer style of the DHA outline. They are not official or past-paper items; Prometric states that it does not sell test preparation or practice content in any form. DHA's 150 questions in 3 hours leave under 72 seconds each once check-in is taken out, so time yourself.
Twelve original practice questions
Question 1 - dose by weight
A child weighing 18 kg is prescribed amoxicillin 45 mg/kg/day in two divided doses. The suspension is 250 mg/5 mL. What volume is given per dose?
- A. 4.05 mL
- B. 8.1 mL
- C. 16.2 mL
- D. 5 mL
Answer: B. Daily dose is 45 x 18 = 810 mg, so each dose is 405 mg. The suspension contains 50 mg/mL, and 405 / 50 = 8.1 mL.
Question 2 - renal function
A 70-year-old man weighing 60 kg has a serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL. What is his estimated creatinine clearance by Cockcroft-Gault?
- A. 29 mL/min
- B. 49 mL/min
- C. 58 mL/min
- D. 70 mL/min
Answer: B. CrCl = (140 - age) x weight / (72 x SCr) = 70 x 60 / 86.4, about 49 mL/min. For a woman, multiply by 0.85.
Question 3 - pregnancy
A woman taking lisinopril for chronic hypertension tells you she is seven weeks pregnant. What is the most appropriate action?
- A. Continue lisinopril and review at delivery
- B. Switch to losartan
- C. Contact the prescriber so lisinopril is stopped and an alternative such as labetalol is started
- D. Add hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: C. ACE inhibitors and ARBs are fetotoxic, so switching to losartan does not solve the problem. NICE NG133 advises stopping them, preferably within two working days of learning of the pregnancy, and offering alternatives. Labetalol comes first, then nifedipine, then methyldopa.
Question 4 - drug interaction
A patient stable on warfarin (INR 2.5) is prescribed oral fluconazole. What is the expected effect?
- A. INR falls through enzyme induction
- B. INR rises because fluconazole inhibits CYP2C9
- C. No change, so no monitoring is needed
- D. INR falls because vitamin K absorption increases
Answer: B. S-warfarin, the more potent enantiomer, is cleared mainly by CYP2C9, which fluconazole inhibits. Bleeding risk rises, so tell the prescriber and check the INR more often than usual.
Question 5 - toxicology
An adult presents after a large paracetamol ingestion with a plasma level above the treatment line. Which antidote is indicated?
- A. Flumazenil
- B. Acetylcysteine
- C. Naloxone
- D. Deferoxamine
Answer: B. Acetylcysteine restores glutathione, which neutralises the toxic metabolite NAPQI, and works best early. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, naloxone opioids and deferoxamine chelates iron.
Question 6 - medication safety
A prescriber orders potassium chloride 20 mmol intravenously. Which approach is safest?
- A. Give the concentrate as an IV push over two minutes
- B. Give a diluted, premixed infusion through an infusion pump at a rate within hospital policy
- C. Give it intramuscularly
- D. Add concentrate to a running bag without mixing
Answer: B. Concentrated potassium chloride is a high-alert medicine. It must never be given undiluted or as a push: it can cause fatal arrhythmias.
Question 7 - OTC counselling
A patient with poorly controlled hypertension asks for something for a blocked nose from a cold. What is the best choice?
- A. Pseudoephedrine tablets
- B. A phenylephrine combination cold tablet
- C. Sodium chloride nasal spray
- D. Ibuprofen with pseudoephedrine
Answer: C. Oral sympathomimetic decongestants can raise blood pressure, and NSAIDs can worsen hypertension. Saline spray is a safe first choice. Refer if symptoms are severe or persistent.
Question 8 - infection control
During a C. difficile outbreak on a ward, a pharmacist has just examined a patient with confirmed infection. Which hand hygiene step does CDC encourage?
- A. Alcohol-based hand rub only
- B. Remove gloves, then wash hands with soap and water
- C. No hand hygiene if gloves were worn
- D. Chlorhexidine wipes only
Answer: B. Alcohol does not reliably kill spores, while soap and water help remove them. CDC prefers alcohol rub in most situations, but during C. difficile outbreaks it encourages handwashing with soap and water after caring for these patients. Correct glove use remains the main protection.
Question 9 - sterile compounding
Under USP chapter 797, what minimum air quality must the primary engineering control used for sterile compounding provide?
- A. ISO Class 5
- B. ISO Class 7
- C. ISO Class 8
- D. ISO Class 9
Answer: A. The primary engineering control, such as a laminar airflow workbench or biological safety cabinet, must provide ISO Class 5 air or better. ISO Class 7 is the usual buffer-room standard, ISO Class 8 the usual ante-room standard.
Question 10 - disease state management
A 58-year-old with type 2 diabetes on metformin (HbA1c 8.1%) has heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. Which add-on is preferred?
- A. Glipizide
- B. Pioglitazone
- C. Empagliflozin
- D. Saxagliptin
Answer: C. The ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes 2026 recommend an SGLT2 inhibitor with proven heart failure benefit for people with type 2 diabetes and heart failure, including reduced ejection fraction. Pioglitazone causes fluid retention and should be avoided, saxagliptin was linked to more heart failure hospitalisations, and glipizide has no cardiorenal benefit.
Question 11 - pharmacogenomics
A patient who received a coronary stent is found to be a CYP2C19 poor metabolizer. Why is clopidogrel a concern?
- A. It accumulates to toxic levels
- B. Less of the prodrug is converted to its active metabolite, reducing platelet inhibition
- C. It causes severe hypoglycaemia
- D. It induces CYP2C19
Answer: B. Clopidogrel is a prodrug needing CYP2C19 to become active. Poor metabolizers form less active metabolite, raising the risk of stent thrombosis. For poor metabolizers after PCI, the CPIC clopidogrel and CYP2C19 guideline advises prasugrel or ticagrelor instead if no contraindication exists.
Question 12 - dietary supplements
A woman taking a combined oral contraceptive starts St John's wort. What is the main risk?
- A. Increased oestrogen side effects
- B. Reduced contraceptive effectiveness
- C. Hyperkalaemia
- D. No clinically relevant interaction
Answer: B. St John's wort induces CYP3A4, which lowers hormone levels. This can cause breakthrough bleeding and contraceptive failure, so advise avoiding the combination or adding another method.
Quick answers
Does DHA publish past papers for the pharmacist exam?
Not in its CBT guideline. It publishes the format, pass score, topic outline and references, but no questions, and Prometric states it sells no practice content. MOHAP states that individual questions and answers cannot be disclosed.
What is the DHA pharmacist pass mark?
60% for the Pharmacist exam in DHA's assessment guideline as checked on 20 September 2026. Clinical Pharmacy is 70% and Pharmacy Technician is 55%. You see only Pass or Fail, not your score.
Is the DoH pharmacist exam also 150 questions?
Not necessarily. DoH lists 50 to 100 MCQs over 1 to 2 hours for its Pharmacist CBT group, with an internal cut-score.
Are these sample questions from the real exam?
No. They are original Myndaq practice questions written to the published DHA outline.
