Free NEET UG mock test — 180 questions, 3 hours, +4/−1

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One NEET UG paper in the real exam format: 180 questions across 3 timed sections, 3 hr on a server-controlled clock.

About the real exam India's single gateway to MBBS, BDS & AYUSH — one 3-hour paper, 720 marks.

180
Questions
3 hr
Duration
3
Sections
2
Breaks
720
Scored out of
Google sign-in opens right here · add the mock from your home page · you confirm before your one attempt is used

Free, reversible until you begin · one attempt per account · no retake, no card.

Marks and results

What you get back

What this free mock returns

You get your raw marks and per-section scores. No scaled score, band, rank or percentile is estimated for this paper.

  • Scored out of 720 raw marks, with per-section totals.
  • Wrong answers can cost marks where the paper defines it - the per-section marks in the paper map are the marks the scorer applies.
180
Physics
180
Chemistry
360
Biology

Marks available per section in this free mock, totalling 720.

How the real NEET UG is scored

NEET is scored out of 720 (+4 for a correct answer, -1 for a wrong one, 0 if unattempted).

  • 650+ / 720Competitive for top government MBBS colleges (AIIMS, leading state GMCs) under All-India Quota.
  • 600 - 650Strong chance at a government MBBS seat via state quota in many states.
  • 500 - 600Realistic range for private MBBS and many BDS / AYUSH government seats.
  • Qualifying (50th pct)General cut-off was 144 marks in 2025 — clears eligibility, but rank decides the seat.

Context only - this free mock returns: You get your raw marks and per-section scores. No scaled score, band, rank or percentile is estimated for this paper.

The published paper

The paper, section by section

Physics45 · 45 min · +4 correct / -1 wrong (out of 180)
Break · optional, up to 20 min
Chemistry45 · 45 min · +4 correct / -1 wrong (out of 180)
Break · optional, up to 20 min
Biology90 · 1 hr 30 min · +4 correct / -1 wrong (out of 360)

One cell per question, grouped by section.

Navigation: sections run strictly in order and a completed section cannot be reopened.

Try the question style

Sample questions with worked answers

8 original practice questions written by Myndaq in the NEET UG style. They are not taken from this mock paper or from official past papers. Try each one, then open the answer.

  1. Question 1PhysicsOne correct answer

    A 3 kg block, initially at rest on a rough horizontal floor, is pulled by a constant horizontal force of 18 N and starts sliding at once. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the floor is 0.25 (take g = 10 m/s²). The kinetic energy of the block 4 s after the force is first applied is

    1. 210 J
    2. 294 J
    3. 504 J
    4. 864 J
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B

    Kinetic friction = μmg = 0.25 × 3 × 10 = 7.5 N. Net force = 18 − 7.5 = 10.5 N, so a = 10.5/3 = 3.5 m/s².

    After 4 s: v = 3.5 × 4 = 14 m/s, so KE = ½ × 3 × 14² = 294 J.

    Check with the work-energy theorem: distance = ½ × 3.5 × 4² = 28 m; work by the pull = 18 × 28 = 504 J; work against friction = 7.5 × 28 = 210 J; 504 − 210 = 294 J. The option 504 J is only the work done by the applied force, 210 J is only the energy lost to friction, and 864 J is what you get by ignoring friction (a = 6 m/s², v = 24 m/s).

  2. Question 2PhysicsOne correct answer

    Assertion (A): A thin convex lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 has a longer focal length when it is immersed in water (refractive index 4/3) than when it is held in air.

    Reason (R): By the lens maker's formula, the power of a thin lens is proportional to (μ₂/μ₁ − 1), where μ₂ is the refractive index of the lens material and μ₁ that of the surrounding medium, and this factor is smaller in water than in air.

    Read the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) above. Which option describes them correctly?

    1. A and R are both correct, and R explains why A holds.
    2. A and R are both correct, but R does not explain A.
    3. A is correct, but R is incorrect.
    4. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A

    Lens maker's formula: 1/f = (μ₂/μ₁ − 1)(1/R₁ − 1/R₂). The curvature term does not change when the lens is moved into water.

    In air: μ₂/μ₁ − 1 = 1.5 − 1 = 0.5. In water: μ₂/μ₁ − 1 = 1.5/(4/3) − 1 = 9/8 − 1 = 1/8. So f(water)/f(air) = 0.5 ÷ (1/8) = 4. The focal length becomes four times longer and the lens is still converging, so A is correct.

    R states exactly the dependence that causes this change (the relative index falls from 1.5 to 1.125), so R is correct and is the explanation of A. The other options fail because both statements are true and R does account for A.

  3. Question 3ChemistryOne correct answer

    At 25 °C, 10 mL of 0.2 M HCl is mixed with 30 mL of 0.1 M NaOH. The pH of the resulting solution is (log 2 = 0.30)

    1. 1.60
    2. 12.60
    3. 12.40
    4. 13.00
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C

    Moles of H⁺ = 10 mL × 0.2 M = 2 mmol. Moles of OH⁻ = 30 mL × 0.1 M = 3 mmol. After neutralisation, 1 mmol of OH⁻ is left in a total volume of 10 + 30 = 40 mL.

    [OH⁻] = 1/40 = 0.025 M = 2.5 × 10^-2 M. log 2.5 = log 10 − log 4 = 1 − 0.60 = 0.40, so pOH = 2 − 0.40 = 1.60 and pH = 14 − 1.60 = 12.40.

    1.60 is the pOH, not the pH. 12.60 comes from adding the log term instead of subtracting it (pOH taken as 1.40). 13.00 treats the solution as if the 0.1 M NaOH were unreacted and undiluted.

  4. Question 4ChemistryOne correct answer

    List I (conversion)

    P. Benzenediazonium chloride → chlorobenzene

    Q. Propanone → propane

    R. Ethanoyl chloride → ethanal

    S. Phenol → 2-hydroxybenzaldehyde (salicylaldehyde)

    List II (reagent or conditions)

    1. CHCl₃ with aqueous NaOH, followed by acidification

    2. Zinc amalgam with concentrated HCl

    3. Cu₂Cl₂ with HCl

    4. H₂ over palladium on barium sulphate

    Pair each conversion in List I with the reagent in List II that brings it about. Which option gives the right pairing?

    1. P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
    2. P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
    3. P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
    4. P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D

    P: replacing the diazonium group by chlorine with cuprous chloride in HCl is the Sandmeyer reaction, so P-3.

    Q: reducing the C=O group of a ketone all the way to CH₂ with Zn-Hg and concentrated HCl is the Clemmensen reduction, so Q-2.

    R: an acid chloride is reduced only as far as the aldehyde by hydrogen over Pd on BaSO₄ (a partly poisoned catalyst, Rosenmund reduction), so R-4.

    S: phenol with chloroform and aqueous alkali, then acid, introduces a CHO group ortho to the OH (Reimer-Tiemann reaction), so S-1.

    The pairing P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 is option D. Option A swaps the two reductions (Pd/BaSO₄ would not take a ketone to an alkane), and options B and C mismatch the diazonium and phenol reactions.

  5. Question 5Biology (Botany)One correct answer

    In a plant species, allele T (tall) is completely dominant over t (dwarf), while flower colour shows incomplete dominance: RR plants have red flowers, Rr plants pink and rr plants white. The two genes assort independently. A tall, pink-flowered plant heterozygous at both loci is crossed with a dwarf, pink-flowered plant. What fraction of the progeny is expected to be tall with red flowers?

    1. 1/8
    2. 3/16
    3. 1/4
    4. 3/8
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A

    The cross is TtRr × ttRr. Treat each gene separately, since they assort independently.

    Height: Tt × tt gives 1/2 Tt (tall) and 1/2 tt (dwarf). Colour: Rr × Rr gives 1/4 RR (red), 1/2 Rr (pink) and 1/4 rr (white).

    Tall and red = 1/2 × 1/4 = 1/8.

    3/16 wrongly applies the 9:3:3:1 dihybrid ratio, which needs both parents to be double heterozygotes. 1/4 is the fraction of tall pink plants (1/2 × 1/2). 3/8 treats R as fully dominant and counts red and pink together (1/2 × 3/4).

  6. Question 6Biology (Botany)One correct answer

    a. In mesophyll cells, PEP carboxylase fixes CO₂ with phosphoenol pyruvate to form oxaloacetic acid, a four-carbon compound.

    b. The bundle sheath cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCO.

    c. In C4 plants, the Calvin cycle runs in the bundle sheath cells.

    d. C4 plants show very little photorespiration because the CO₂ concentration around RuBisCO is kept high.

    Which of the statements a to d about the C4 (Hatch and Slack) pathway are correct?

    1. a, b and c only
    2. a, c and d only
    3. b and d only
    4. a, b, c and d
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B

    a is correct: the primary CO₂ acceptor in C4 mesophyll cells is the three-carbon PEP, the enzyme is PEP carboxylase, and the first stable product is the four-carbon oxaloacetic acid.

    b is wrong: bundle sheath cells are rich in RuBisCO and lack PEP carboxylase. This is why c is correct: the C4 acid is carried to the bundle sheath, decarboxylated there, and the released CO₂ enters the Calvin cycle in those cells.

    d is correct: decarboxylation raises the CO₂ level around RuBisCO, so its oxygenase activity is minimised and photorespiration is negligible, which helps C4 plants in hot, bright conditions.

    So only a, c and d are correct. Every other option includes the false statement b or leaves out a true one.

  7. Question 7Biology (Zoology)One correct answer

    In a resting adult, each ventricle holds 140 mL of blood at the end of diastole and 60 mL at the end of systole, and the heart beats 64 times per minute. The cardiac output of this person is

    1. 3.84 L/min
    2. 8.96 L/min
    3. 12.80 L/min
    4. 5.12 L/min
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D

    Stroke volume is the blood pumped out by a ventricle in one beat: end-diastolic volume − end-systolic volume = 140 − 60 = 80 mL.

    Cardiac output = stroke volume × heart rate = 80 mL × 64 per minute = 5120 mL/min = 5.12 L/min.

    3.84 L/min multiplies the blood left behind (60 mL) by the heart rate, 8.96 L/min uses the full end-diastolic volume (140 mL) as if the ventricle emptied completely, and 12.80 L/min adds the two volumes instead of subtracting them.

  8. Question 8Biology (Zoology)One correct answer

    Each option lists a human digestive enzyme, the substrate it acts on and the product it forms. Which option is INCORRECTLY matched?

    1. Enterokinase — trypsinogen — trypsin
    2. Pepsin — proteins — proteoses and peptones
    3. Nucleosidases — nucleotides — nucleosides
    4. Dipeptidases — dipeptides — amino acids
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C

    Nucleotides are converted to nucleosides by nucleotidases. Nucleosidases act one step later, splitting nucleosides into pentose sugars and nitrogenous bases, so option C is the mismatch.

    The rest are correct: enterokinase from the intestinal mucosa activates trypsinogen to trypsin, which then activates the other pancreatic proenzymes; pepsin in the stomach breaks proteins into proteoses and peptones; and dipeptidases in the intestinal juice (succus entericus) hydrolyse dipeptides into amino acids.

About the exam

Everything about the NEET UG

NEET UG (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) is the single national entrance exam for undergraduate medical and allied admission in India — MBBS, BDS, BAMS, BHMS, BUMS, BSc Nursing and BVSc & AH. Conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA), it is the only route into government and private medical and dental colleges nationwide.

22.76 lakh
Registered (2025)
down from 24.06 lakh in 2024
~1.18 lakh
MBBS seats
govt + private, 2025
~27,900
BDS seats
2025 seat matrix
2027 — awaiting NTA bulletin
Next exam
NTA has not yet published the NEET-UG 2027 information bulletin; the date will appear here when it does.

Figures about the real exam, as recorded in the Myndaq course. They describe the real sitting, not this free mock paper - check current details with the exam body before you book.

What the real NEET UG covers
The exam follows the NMC-prescribed syllabus, drawn entirely from the rationalised NCERT Class 11 and 12 curriculum. Physics and Chemistry carry 45 questions each; Biology carries 90 (Botany 45 + Zoology 45), so Biology is half the paper.
Who sits it
Class 11 and 12 science students with Physics, Chemistry and Biology aiming for medical or dental college. Droppers and repeaters retaking NEET to improve their rank. Anyone targeting MBBS, BDS, or AYUSH (BAMS / BHMS / BUMS) admission in India. Students who want disciplined, NCERT-anchored practice across all three subjects.
How people prepare for it
Biology is about half the paper and the most scoring: practise Botany and Zoology daily to lock in NCERT-direct marks. For Physics and Physical Chemistry, drill numerical problems until formula recall and speed are automatic.
What it opens up
MBBS — Bachelor of Medicine & Bachelor of Surgery (about 1.18 lakh seats in 2025). BDS — Bachelor of Dental Surgery (about 27,900 seats in 2025). AYUSH degrees — BAMS, BHMS, BUMS and Siddha (about 52,700 seats). BSc Nursing and BVSc & AH (veterinary science). A government MBBS seat in particular means low fees and a direct path into a medical career.

Figures above are as reported for the cycle named in each row and are refreshed each cycle. Sourced, dated facts for this exam (official links on every row) are on the NEET UG course page.

Fidelity

How this mirrors the real format

  • The paper structure is the real format: 3 sections in exam order, 180 questions in total.
  • Timing is server-controlled for the full 3 hr -- closing the tab does not pause the clock, exactly like our paid mock series.
  • Marking follows the published paper: the per-section marks shown in the paper map are the marks the scorer applies.
  • Sections run strictly in order and a completed section cannot be reopened.
  • Break windows fall where the paper schedules them, and each one is shown in the paper map.

"Real format" means the paper shape, timing, marking and navigation above - not the official exam software, its visual identity, or any affiliation with the exam body.

Be clear about this

What differs or is limited

  • This free mock follows the same paper shape, timing, marking scheme and navigation as our paid NEET UG 2026 mock series. It is scored automatically. It does not include tutor explanations, analysis dashboards or practice content.
Before you begin

Device and setup checklist

  • A stable internet connection for the full duration.
  • A laptop or desktop is recommended for the closest exam experience.
One attempt

One attempt, explicitly

Adding this mock to your account is free and reversible - you can change the exam any time before you begin. Only the confirmed Begin action uses your one attempt. No retake, no reset, no card.

Questions

Frequently asked

How many attempts do I get?
One. Every account gets exactly one free mock, on one exam. You can change the chosen exam freely until you begin the paper; after that the attempt is permanently used and there is no retake.
What does the result include?
You get your raw marks and per-section scores. No scaled score, band, rank or percentile is estimated for this paper.
Is the timing real?
Yes. The paper runs 3 hr on a server-controlled clock, section by section. Closing the tab does not pause it.
Are there breaks?
The paper schedules 2 breaks; each break window and cap is enforced by the server and shown in the paper map.
Do I need to pay or add a card?
No. The free mock needs only a Myndaq account. The paid course unlocks explanations, practice content and the full mock series.

About the real NEET UG

How is NEET scored?
180 questions, 720 marks. Each correct answer is +4, each wrong answer is -1, and unattempted questions score 0. There is no sectional time limit — you manage all 180 questions within 180 minutes.
Is NCERT enough for NEET?
NCERT is the backbone, especially for Biology where roughly 90% of questions are NCERT-direct. Physics and Physical Chemistry also need strong problem-solving practice beyond reading. Every module here is anchored to the rationalised NCERT syllabus.
Preparing seriously for NEET UG?
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