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UAE Licensing

UAE GP Exam Sample Questions - DHA, DoH and MOHAP Pattern with 12 Worked Clinical MCQs

The DHA, DoH and MOHAP general practitioner exam pattern as officially published, the DHA outline, and 12 original clinical MCQs with worked answers.

On this page

None of the three UAE regulators publishes past papers for the general practitioner exam. They do publish the shape of the paper and, in Dubai's case, a content outline. This page sets out both, then gives you 12 clinical questions written to that outline. The Myndaq UAE GP course follows the same topic list, and the UAE GP licence guide covers eligibility and documents.

Exam pattern by authority

Each authority sets its own format and can change it, so treat these figures as published on 20 September 2026.

DHA Dubai

DHA's CBT assessment guideline lists Physicians - General Practice as:

  • 150 multiple-choice questions
  • 3 hours, which DHA says includes registration and the process introduction
  • Pass score 60%
  • Code GEN5331, listed fee USD 280
  • sat at a Prometric centre after you generate a DHA Eligibility ID

Sheryan shows only Pass or Fail, and DHA does not share your score. Prometric's DHA page states a strict no-refund policy, including for illness and name discrepancies.

DoH Abu Dhabi

DoH's licensing manual (circular 151, 26 August 2024) lists the General Practitioner assessment as a computer-based test of 120 MCQs in 2.5 hours. DoH states all its examinations are conducted in English, and that no translator is allowed to attend the oral examination. DoH publishes no percentage pass mark; passing depends on a cut-score it sets internally. Written results are announced within one day. You pay in TAMM once approved for the exam, then follow the link to Pearson VUE to book.

MOHAP

MOHAP says Prometric results are processed automatically and shown as Pass or Fail against a 60% minimum. It allows three attempts and no fourth, and it does not disclose individual questions or answers. It publishes no GP question count or duration, so check your booking. Unsure which regulator applies? See the DHA, DoH and MOHAP comparison.

What the DHA outline covers

DHA lists 12 content areas for General Practice:

  • chronic diseases
  • acute and common medical problems
  • common paediatric problems
  • women's health
  • emergency problems
  • common surgical problems
  • common psychiatric problems
  • common eye and ENT problems
  • common dermatology problems
  • basic epidemiology and evidence-based medicine
  • family medicine concepts
  • screening and periodic health examination

No weightings are given, so any percentage split you see elsewhere is unofficial. The reference list includes Toronto Notes, Davidson's, Harrison's, Kumar and Clark, Nelson Essentials of Pediatrics and several obstetrics and gynaecology texts. DoH offers study materials through exam@doh.gov.ae; MOHAP provides no specific references.

Before you start

These are original practice questions written by Myndaq, not official or recalled exam items. Prometric says it sells no test preparation or practice content, though it does offer an exam tutorial. At DHA, 150 questions in 3 hours means under 72 seconds each once check-in is counted, so aim to finish all 12 in about 14 minutes.

Twelve original clinical practice questions

Question 1 - raised clinic blood pressure

A 48-year-old man has repeated clinic readings of 152/96 mmHg, no symptoms and normal fundi. What next?

  • A. Start amlodipine today
  • B. Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
  • C. Same-day specialist referral
  • D. Recheck in five years

Answer: B. Raised clinic readings that are not in the severe range should be confirmed with ambulatory blood pressure monitoring before treatment is started. A single clinic reading is not enough to start treatment, and there is no basis here for same-day referral.

Question 2 - dysuria

A 29-year-old non-pregnant woman has two days of dysuria and frequency, with no fever, loin pain or discharge, and normal kidney function. Which is an appropriate first choice?

  • A. Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release twice daily for 3 days
  • B. Ciprofloxacin for 7 days
  • C. Amoxicillin for 14 days
  • D. Intravenous ceftriaxone

Answer: A. NICE NG109 lists nitrofurantoin (eGFR 45 or more) or, where resistance risk is low, trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily, each for 3 days. A back-up prescription is also an option.

Question 3 - after a wasp sting

A 34-year-old woman has wheeze, lip swelling and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg minutes after a wasp sting. What comes first?

  • A. Intravenous chlorphenamine
  • B. Intravenous hydrocortisone
  • C. Adrenaline 0.5 mg (0.5 mL of 1 mg/mL) into the anterolateral thigh
  • D. Adrenaline 1 mg intravenous bolus

Answer: C. For anaphylaxis, Resuscitation Council UK gives adults 500 micrograms intramuscularly, repeated after 5 minutes if there is no improvement. It does not recommend antihistamines in initial emergency treatment or routine corticosteroids, and says IV adrenaline should only be given by experienced specialists.

Question 4 - head injury

A 40-year-old cyclist has a GCS of 15 after a fall, with bruising behind the ear and clear fluid from the nose. What next?

  • A. Discharge with advice
  • B. Skull X-ray
  • C. CT head within 1 hour
  • D. Scan only if GCS falls

Answer: C. Bruising behind the ear and clear fluid from the nose are signs of a basal skull fracture, which is an indication for urgent CT of the head. A normal GCS does not exclude serious injury.

Question 5 - coughing infant

A 5-month-old has cough, mild recession and fine crackles after a two-day cold. There is no apnoea, she takes 80% of usual feeds and her saturation is 95% in air. Best management?

  • A. Nebulised salbutamol
  • B. Oral amoxicillin
  • C. Oral prednisolone
  • D. Supportive care at home with safety-netting

Answer: D. This is bronchiolitis, which is managed supportively; antibiotics, bronchodilators and corticosteroids are not indicated. She has no emergency referral features such as apnoea or a persistently low oxygen saturation, and she is feeding adequately.

Question 6 - earache

A 3-year-old has one day of ear pain and a temperature of 38.2 degrees Celsius. One eardrum is red and bulging, with no discharge, and he is alert and drinking. Best plan?

  • A. Immediate amoxicillin for 10 days
  • B. Regular paracetamol or ibuprofen, with no or a back-up antibiotic
  • C. Urgent ENT referral
  • D. Antibiotic ear drops

Answer: B. NICE NG91 notes acute otitis media usually lasts about 3 days. Immediate antibiotics are for children who are systemically very unwell, have signs of a more serious illness, or are at high risk of complications; for under-2s with infection in both ears, or children with ear discharge, NICE says to consider no, back-up or immediate antibiotics. Amoxicillin, when given, runs 5 to 7 days.

Question 7 - early pregnancy pain

A 27-year-old woman has pelvic pain and light bleeding seven weeks after her last period, with left adnexal tenderness, stable observations and a positive urine pregnancy test. What next?

  • A. Repeat the test in two weeks
  • B. Immediate early pregnancy referral for transvaginal ultrasound
  • C. Abdominal X-ray
  • D. Methotrexate before imaging

Answer: B. NICE NG126 advises immediate referral when a positive test comes with pain and abdominal or pelvic tenderness, and a transvaginal scan to locate the pregnancy. Methotrexate needs a confirmed diagnosis first.

Question 8 - persistent worry

A 35-year-old has eight months of excessive worry and tension. Self-help and CBT have not helped enough, and she now chooses medication. What should be considered first?

  • A. Long-term diazepam
  • B. Sertraline
  • C. Pregabalin
  • D. Quetiapine

Answer: B. For generalised anxiety disorder, an SSRI such as sertraline is the usual first drug treatment. Pregabalin is reserved for people who cannot tolerate an SSRI or SNRI, benzodiazepines are for short-term crisis use only, and antipsychotics are not a primary care option.

Question 9 - painful red eye

A 64-year-old woman has sudden severe eye pain, haloes, blurred vision and vomiting. The cornea is hazy and the pupil fixed and mid-dilated. What should you do?

  • A. Chloramphenicol drops and review in a week
  • B. Dilate the pupil to see the retina
  • C. Emergency same-day ophthalmology assessment
  • D. Treat as migraine

Answer: C. This is acute angle-closure glaucoma, a sight-threatening emergency that needs same-day ophthalmology assessment. Topical chloramphenicol treats bacterial conjunctivitis, which does not cause severe pain, reduced vision or a fixed mid-dilated pupil, and dilating the pupil would worsen the angle closure rather than help.

Question 10 - night-time itch

A 22-year-old has three weeks of itching, worse at night, with burrows between his fingers and on his wrists. His flatmate is also itchy. Best management?

  • A. Antihistamine alone
  • B. Potent topical steroid
  • C. Permethrin 5% for him and everyone in his household
  • D. Oral flucloxacillin

Answer: C. This is scabies. WHO advises treating everyone in the household, even without symptoms. CDC says to apply permethrin from the neck down and wash it off after 8 to 14 hours, sometimes repeating a week later. Itching can persist for weeks afterwards.

Question 11 - number needed to treat

Over five years, 10% of placebo patients and 6% of treated patients had a stroke. How many must be treated to prevent one stroke?

  • A. 4
  • B. 17
  • C. 25
  • D. 40

Answer: C. Absolute risk reduction is 10% minus 6%, or 0.04, and 1 divided by 0.04 is 25. Option D confuses this with the 40% relative risk reduction.

Question 12 - screening and survival

A screening test finds a cancer two years before symptoms. Survival after diagnosis rises, but age at death is unchanged. Why?

  • A. Lead-time bias
  • B. Recall bias
  • C. A true fall in deaths
  • D. Better chemotherapy

Answer: A. Earlier diagnosis lengthens measured survival even when death comes at the same age. Judge screening by disease-specific mortality in randomised trials.

Quick answers

Are there official past papers for the UAE GP exam?

No. DHA publishes the format, outline and references but not questions, and MOHAP says it cannot disclose questions or answers.

What is the pass mark?

DHA lists 60% for General Practice and MOHAP uses a 60% minimum. DoH publishes no percentage and uses an internal cut-score.

Is the DoH GP exam as long as DHA's?

No. DoH lists 120 MCQs in 2.5 hours; DHA lists 150 questions in 3 hours.

Are these questions from the real exam?

No. They are original Myndaq practice items written to the DHA outline.

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Sources and verification12 references · checked Sep 20, 2026

Every UAE regulator figure on this page was checked against the documents below on 20 September 2026. The NICE pages for NG109, NG91 and NG126 were re-read on that date and the figures quoted from them are current. The NICE pages for NG136, NG232, NG9 and CG113 returned an access error and could not be re-read, so the explanations for questions 1, 4, 5 and 8 state general clinical principles rather than named-guideline detail.


The practice questions are original Myndaq items for study only. Your authority portal, approved title and booking confirmation decide the exam you actually sit.