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GATE EE Previous Year Questions and Paper Pattern - Official Papers, Answer Keys and 12 Practice Questions

Where official GATE EE past papers and answer keys are published, the paper pattern, and 12 original practice questions with worked solutions.

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Previous-year papers are the closest practice to GATE Electrical Engineering, because they show how circuits, machines, power systems and mathematics are mixed in one sitting. This page gives the current pattern, where the official EE papers and answer keys are published and how to use them by section, then 12 original practice questions with full solutions. For structured practice across all ten EE sections, see the Myndaq GATE EE course.

The GATE EE paper pattern

As published by IIT Madras (pattern page and brochure), read on 16 September 2026:

  • 65 questions, 100 marks, 3 hours - computer-based, in a forenoon (9:30 AM to 12:30 PM) or afternoon (2:30 PM to 5:30 PM) session
  • General Aptitude - 10 questions for 15 marks
  • Subject component - 55 questions for 85 marks; in the EE paper, Engineering Mathematics carries 13 of those 85 marks, which leaves 72 marks for core electrical topics
  • Question types - 1- or 2-mark MCQ (four options, one correct), MSQ (four options, one or more correct) and NAT (a signed real number entered on the on-screen numeric keypad)
  • Marking - a wrong 1-mark MCQ loses 1/3 mark and a wrong 2-mark MCQ loses 2/3; MSQ and NAT carry no negative marks, and no question earns partial marks
  • Calculator - only the on-screen virtual calculator

Attempt-or-skip arithmetic is in the GATE exam pattern and marking scheme guide, and keypad habits in NAT and virtual calculator strategy.

Where the official EE papers and answer keys are published

  • Official GATE Downloads page - a bulk download of papers from 2007 to 2026, plus year-wise Electrical Engineering papers with EE answer keys for 2021 to 2026.
  • GATE 2026 page at IIT Guwahati - lists Electrical Engineering as a single paper with its master question paper and EE key; the key follows the master paper's question order, not the on-screen order.

This page reproduces no official question. Two cautions:

  • Check old questions against the current syllabus. IIT Madras has published revised syllabi. The GATE EE syllabus guide walks through the official PDF; if a question's topic is not in it, set that question aside.
  • Treat the official key as the reference for any unofficial solution.

How to use EE previous-year questions, section by section

Work in two passes: untimed by section until your method is reliable, then full three-hour papers, logging every lost mark by section, question type and reason.

  • Engineering Mathematics - drill eigenvalues, residues and probability distributions until each takes under two minutes.
  • Electric Circuits - redraw each network and write the Thevenin equivalent as a separate step.
  • Electromagnetic Fields - keep a one-page list of field and capacitance results; check units every time.
  • Signals and Systems - practise RMS and average values of unusual waveforms.
  • Electrical Machines - write the power-flow chain (input, air-gap power, mechanical power) before any numbers.
  • Power Systems - convert everything to one per-unit base first.
  • Control Systems - derive the closed-loop transfer function before judging any option.
  • Electrical and Electronic Measurements - drill the two-wattmeter and bridge balance relations on numbers.
  • Analog and Digital Electronics - confirm whether an op-amp stage is inverting before writing its gain.
  • Power Electronics - sketch the inductor voltage over one switching period.

Original practice questions in the GATE EE style

The 12 questions below are original practice questions written by Myndaq in the official GATE style. They are not official past-paper questions.

Q1 - Engineering Mathematics, NAT, 1 mark

A is the 2 × 2 matrix with rows (4, 1) and (2, 3). The largest eigenvalue of A⁻¹, rounded off to two decimal places, is ____.

Answer: 0.50. A has trace 7 and determinant 12 − 2 = 10, so its eigenvalues solve λ² − 7λ + 10 = 0, giving 2 and 5. The eigenvalues of A⁻¹ are their reciprocals, 0.5 and 0.2, so the largest is 0.50.

Q2 - Engineering Mathematics, MCQ, 2 marks

The integral of 1/(z² + 1), taken anticlockwise around the circle |z − i| = 1, equals:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) π
  • (C) 2π
  • (D) πi

Answer: (B). Of the poles ±i, only z = i lies inside the circle, since |−i − i| = 2 > 1. The residue at z = i is 1/(i + i) = 1/(2i), so the integral is 2πi × 1/(2i) = π.

Q3 - Electric Circuits, NAT, 1 mark

An ideal 24 V DC source in series with a 4 Ω resistor is connected across a 12 Ω resistor. A variable load R_L is connected in parallel with the 12 Ω resistor. The maximum power, in watts, that can be delivered to R_L is ____.

Answer: 27. The Thevenin voltage is 24 × 12/16 = 18 V and the Thevenin resistance is 4 ∥ 12 = 3 Ω. Maximum power occurs at R_L = 3 Ω and equals 18²/(4 × 3) = 324/12 = 27 W.

Q4 - Electric Circuits, MSQ, 2 marks

A series RLC circuit has R = 10 Ω, L = 10 mH and C = 100 µF. Which are correct?

  • (A) The resonant frequency is 1000 rad/s
  • (B) The quality factor is 10
  • (C) The bandwidth is 1000 rad/s
  • (D) The impedance at resonance is zero

Answer: (A) and (C). ω₀ = 1/√(LC) = 1/√(10⁻⁶) = 1000 rad/s. Bandwidth = R/L = 10/0.01 = 1000 rad/s. The quality factor is ω₀L/R = 10/10 = 1, so (B) is false. At resonance Z = R = 10 Ω, so (D) is false.

Q5 - Electromagnetic Fields, MCQ, 1 mark

A parallel-plate capacitor has plate area 0.02 m², plate separation 1 mm and a dielectric of relative permittivity 5. Taking ε₀ = 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m and ignoring fringing, its capacitance is closest to:

  • (A) 177 pF
  • (B) 443 pF
  • (C) 885 pF
  • (D) 8.85 nF

Answer: (C). C = ε₀εᵣA/d = 8.854 × 10⁻¹² × 5 × 0.02/0.001 = 8.854 × 10⁻¹⁰ F, about 885 pF.

Q6 - Signals and Systems, NAT, 1 mark

The RMS value, in volts, of v(t) = 5 + 10 sin(100πt) V, rounded off to two decimal places, is ____.

Answer: 8.66. The cross term averages to zero over a period, so the mean square is 5² + (10/√2)² = 25 + 50 = 75. The RMS value is √75 = 8.660..., or 8.66 V.

Q7 - Electrical Machines, MSQ, 2 marks

A 4-pole, 50 Hz, three-phase induction motor runs at 1440 rpm with an air-gap power of 10 kW. Which are correct?

  • (A) The gross mechanical power developed is 9.4 kW
  • (B) The slip is 0.04
  • (C) The rotor current frequency is 2 Hz
  • (D) The rotor copper loss is 400 W

Answer: (B), (C) and (D). Synchronous speed is 120 × 50/4 = 1500 rpm, so s = 60/1500 = 0.04. Rotor frequency is sf = 2 Hz. Rotor copper loss is s × 10 kW = 400 W, and gross mechanical power is (1 − s) × 10 kW = 9.6 kW, so (A) is false.

Q8 - Power Systems, MCQ, 2 marks

An unloaded 50 MVA, 11 kV generator at rated voltage has a subtransient reactance of 0.125 pu on its own rating. A bolted three-phase fault occurs at its terminals. On a 100 MVA, 11 kV base, the subtransient fault current is closest to:

  • (A) 5.25 kA
  • (B) 10.5 kA
  • (C) 21.0 kA
  • (D) 42.0 kA

Answer: (C). On the new base, X = 0.125 × 100/50 = 0.25 pu, so the fault current is 1/0.25 = 4 pu. Base current is 100,000/(√3 × 11) = 5248.6 A, so the fault current is 4 × 5248.6 ≈ 20,995 A, or 21.0 kA. Option (D) comes from skipping the base change.

Q9 - Control Systems, MSQ, 2 marks

A unity-feedback system has open-loop transfer function G(s) = 25/[s(s + 6)]. Which are correct?

  • (A) The damping ratio is 0.6
  • (B) The steady-state error to a unit step input is 0.2
  • (C) The undamped natural frequency is 5 rad/s
  • (D) The peak overshoot is about 9.5%

Answer: (A), (C) and (D). The closed-loop denominator is s² + 6s + 25, so ωₙ = 5 rad/s and 2ζωₙ = 6 gives ζ = 0.6. Peak overshoot is exp(−πζ/√(1 − ζ²)) = exp(−0.75π) ≈ 0.0948, about 9.5%. G(s) has a pole at the origin (type 1), so the step error is zero and (B) is false.

Q10 - Electrical and Electronic Measurements, NAT, 2 marks

In the two-wattmeter method on a balanced three-phase load, the wattmeters read 5 kW and 1 kW. The load power factor, rounded off to two decimal places, is ____.

Answer: 0.65. tan φ = √3 (W₁ − W₂)/(W₁ + W₂) = √3 × 4/6 = 1.1547. Then cos φ = 1/√(1 + 1.3333) = 0.6547, or 0.65.

Q11 - Analog and Digital Electronics, MCQ, 1 mark

An ideal op-amp on ±12 V supplies is used as an inverting amplifier with R₁ = 10 kΩ and R_f = 100 kΩ. For a DC input of 0.5 V, the output is:

  • (A) +5 V
  • (B) −5 V
  • (C) +5.5 V
  • (D) −12 V

Answer: (B). The gain is −R_f/R₁ = −10, so the output is −5 V, well inside the supply limits.

Q12 - Power Electronics, NAT, 2 marks

An ideal buck converter in continuous conduction steps 48 V down to 12 V at a switching frequency of 20 kHz with a 100 µH inductor. The peak-to-peak inductor current ripple, in amperes, is ____.

Answer: 4.5. The duty ratio is 12/48 = 0.25 and the period is 50 µs. During the off time of 0.75 × 50 = 37.5 µs, the inductor carries −12 V, so ΔI = 12 × 37.5 × 10⁻⁶/(100 × 10⁻⁶) = 4.5 A.

Quick answers

Where can I download GATE EE previous year papers officially?

From the official GATE Downloads page: year-wise EE papers and keys for 2021 to 2026, and a bulk download for 2007 to 2026.

How many marks does Engineering Mathematics carry in GATE EE?

13 of the 85 subject marks, per the official brochure; General Aptitude carries 15.

Is there negative marking on MSQ and NAT questions?

No. Only wrong MCQ answers lose marks: 1/3 for a 1-mark MCQ and 2/3 for a 2-mark MCQ. No question earns partial marks.

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Sources and verification6 references · checked Sep 16, 2026

Every pattern rule and archive detail on this page was checked against the official pages below on 16 September 2026.


The 12 practice questions are original items written by Myndaq, not official GATE questions. Pattern rules are as published on 16 September 2026; confirm on the official GATE website before your exam.