IELTS does not publish the papers candidates sat, and no "previous year" IELTS paper circulating online is a genuine live test. What the owners fix is the format — the number of sections, the question formats that can appear and how raw marks become bands — and practice is useful to the extent that it matches that format. The eleven questions below are drawn from the Myndaq practice bank and are not reproductions of any official item. Each is written to one of the official Academic Reading formats, with its passage printed once and a worked answer. They sit alongside the Myndaq IELTS Academic course.
One honest caveat before you start: the passages here are short practice excerpts of 80 to 160 words, written so that one question can be worked in isolation. A real Academic Reading test has three sections totalling 2,150–2,750 words. The reasoning each format demands is the same; the stamina is not. Treat figures inside the passages as practice material, not as facts to cite.
The pattern you are practising for
- Reading: 40 questions, 60 minutes, three sections, 2,150–2,750 words in total, texts from books, journals, magazines, newspapers and online sources written for a non-specialist reader.
- Eleven Reading formats: multiple choice; True/False/Not Given; Yes/No/Not Given (writer's views); matching information; matching headings; matching features; matching sentence endings; sentence completion; summary, note, table or flow-chart completion; diagram label completion; short-answer questions.
- Marking: each correct answer earns one mark, and the raw mark out of 40 converts to a band. The owners' published Academic Reading examples are 15 for Band 5, 23 for Band 6, 30 for Band 7 and 35 for Band 8; the exact conversion varies slightly between versions.
- No pass mark. The band you need is set by your university or registering body.
Your band comes from the number of correct answers, and the owners describe no deduction for wrong ones — so a blank can only score nothing, while a guess might score. Never leave a Reading question empty.
True / False / Not Given
Passage. The domestication of horses is believed to have begun on the Eurasian steppes around 3500 BCE. Early horses were primarily used for their meat and milk before humans discovered their potential as working animals. Archaeological evidence from sites in Kazakhstan suggests that horse riding may have developed shortly after initial domestication, though scholars debate the precise timeline. By 2000 BCE, horses had become central to warfare and trade across much of Eurasia, dramatically altering the pace at which cultures interacted and exchanged goods.
Question 1. Horses were initially domesticated for use in warfare.
- A. True
- B. False
- C. Not Given
Answer: B (False). The passage says early horses were used "primarily ... for their meat and milk" before their value as working animals was discovered. Warfare appears only around 2000 BCE, long after domestication. The statement contradicts the text, so it is False — not Not Given. The trap is that "warfare" is in the passage; the word being present does not make the claim true.
Passage. The concept of the circadian rhythm describes an internal biological clock that operates on approximately a twenty-four-hour cycle, regulating processes such as sleep, hormone release, and metabolism in most living organisms. Research has shown that disrupting these rhythms through irregular sleep schedules or prolonged exposure to artificial light at night can impair cognitive performance and weaken immune function. Notably, light is the primary environmental cue that synchronises the internal clock with the external world, a process scientists call entrainment.
Question 2. Temperature is the main environmental factor that synchronises the circadian rhythm with the outside world.
- A. True
- B. False
- C. Not Given
Answer: B (False). The text names light as "the primary environmental cue", which directly contradicts temperature being the main factor. Had the passage said nothing about what synchronises the clock, the answer would be Not Given. The test for False is always: does the passage say something that cannot be true at the same time as the statement?
Matching headings
Passage — Paragraph C. The Amazon rainforest in Brazil is often called the 'lungs of the Earth' because it produces a significant amount of the world's oxygen. Covering approximately 5.5 million square kilometres, it is home to millions of plant and animal species. Many of these species have not yet been discovered by scientists. The forest also plays a major role in regulating the global climate by absorbing large quantities of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
Question 3. Which heading best matches Paragraph C?
- A. The global importance of the Amazon rainforest
- B. The economic value of Brazilian timber
- C. How animals survive in tropical climates
- D. The discovery of new plant medicines
Answer: A. Oxygen, biodiversity and climate regulation are three examples of one idea: the forest matters to the whole planet. A heading names the paragraph's main idea, not one detail in it. C and D each pick up a word ("animals", "discovered") from a single sentence — the standard distractor for this format.
Matching information
Passage. A Lagos, Nigeria's largest city, is one of the fastest-growing urban areas in the world. Its population is estimated at over 15 million people, though some estimates place the figure much higher. B The city faces significant challenges with traffic congestion. Journeys that might take 20 minutes in a smaller city can take several hours in Lagos during peak times, reducing productivity and quality of life for residents. C To address transportation problems, the Lagos state government introduced a Bus Rapid Transit system in 2008. Dedicated bus lanes were built along major roads to allow buses to travel faster than other vehicles. D Lagos is also a major centre for business and finance in West Africa. It is home to the Nigerian Stock Exchange and the headquarters of many large national and international companies. E The city has a vibrant cultural scene, with a thriving music industry, busy markets, and a wide range of festivals celebrated throughout the year.
Question 4. Which paragraph explains a government measure taken to improve the movement of people around the city?
- A. Paragraph A
- B. Paragraph B
- C. Paragraph C
- D. Paragraph D
Answer: C. "Government measure" and "movement of people" paraphrase "the Lagos state government introduced a Bus Rapid Transit system". Paragraph B describes the problem, not a measure — the neighbouring paragraph is the usual trap. Unlike headings, matching information asks where a specific piece of information is, and the information can sit in a single clause.
Identifying the writer's or an expert's views
Passage. Japan's population has been declining since 2010, falling to approximately 125 million by 2022. Demographer Dr. Kenji Matsuda of Osaka University attributes this decline primarily to falling birth rates rather than emigration, noting that Japan's birth rate stood at just 1.2 in 2022, well below the replacement level of 2.1. He considers this demographic trend to be the most serious long-term threat to Japan's economic stability. Dr. Matsuda argues that raising the birth rate through financial incentives for young families is a more culturally appropriate solution than expanding immigration. He acknowledges that some economists disagree with this position. According to government data, Japan's working-age population shrank by nearly 10 million between 2000 and 2020.
Question 5. Which of the following represents Dr. Matsuda's opinion rather than a fact?
- A. Japan's population fell to approximately 125 million by 2022.
- B. Raising the birth rate through incentives is more culturally appropriate than expanding immigration.
- C. Japan's birth rate stood at 1.2 in 2022, below the replacement level of 2.1.
- D. Japan's working-age population shrank by nearly 10 million between 2000 and 2020.
Answer: B. The verb "argues" marks a claim he is making, and "more culturally appropriate" is a judgement no data can settle. A, C and D are figures reported as data. Views questions are won by reading the reporting verbs — argues, believes, considers, acknowledges — not the topic words.
Passage. Australia's Snowy 2.0 hydroelectric project, designed to add 2,000 megawatts of storage capacity to the national grid, has faced significant cost overruns, with estimates rising from an initial AU$2 billion to over AU$12 billion by 2023. Professor Linda Burrows of the Australian National University describes these overruns as symptomatic of broader governance failures in large-scale infrastructure procurement. She acknowledges that pumped hydro remains one of the most proven forms of large-scale energy storage globally. However, Professor Burrows believes the project's poor financial planning has damaged public confidence in renewable energy infrastructure more broadly, a consequence she considers avoidable and particularly damaging at a critical moment in Australia's energy transition.
Question 6. What does Professor Burrows believe about the impact of the cost overruns?
- A. They have irreversibly halted Australia's renewable energy transition.
- B. They demonstrate that pumped hydro is an unsuitable technology for Australia.
- C. They have unnecessarily harmed public confidence in renewable energy infrastructure.
- D. They are an acceptable outcome given the scale and complexity of the project.
Answer: C. "Damaged public confidence" plus "avoidable" is exactly "unnecessarily harmed". A overstates — "irreversibly halted" is nowhere in the text. B contradicts her acknowledgement that pumped hydro is proven. D contradicts "avoidable". Overstatement is the commonest wrong option in views items; test every strong word ("irreversibly", "always", "only") against the text.
Multiple choice with two answers
Passage. The concept of circular economy has gained considerable attention among policymakers and businesses as an alternative to the traditional linear model of 'take, make, dispose'. In a circular economy, resources are kept in use for as long as possible through strategies such as reuse, repair, and recycling. One significant benefit highlighted by researchers is the reduction of raw material extraction, which decreases environmental degradation associated with mining and forestry. The model also offers economic advantages: companies that redesign products for longevity and component recovery can generate new revenue streams through resale and remanufacturing. Several European nations, including Germany and the Netherlands, have introduced legislative frameworks to accelerate the transition. Critics argue, however, that the circular economy model requires substantial upfront investment in infrastructure, which may deter smaller businesses from participating.
Question 7. Which TWO of the following are identified as benefits of the circular economy?
- A. Reducing the extraction of raw materials from the environment
- B. Enabling companies to create new revenue through resale and remanufacturing
- C. Eliminating the need for government regulation in industry
- D. Providing low-cost solutions accessible to all small businesses
- E. Standardising product designs across international markets
Answer: A and B. Both are stated as benefits in consecutive sentences. C is the reverse of the legislation sentence, and D is the reverse of the critics' point about upfront cost. Two-answer items usually hide one wrong option that inverts a nearby sentence; find the sentence, then check the direction.
Summary completion
Passage. The Chola Empire, which reached its zenith between the ninth and thirteenth centuries, is widely regarded as one of the most powerful maritime states in South Asian history. Operating from its Tamil heartland in what is now southern India, the Chola navy conducted ambitious overseas campaigns, including a remarkable naval expedition in 1025 CE that targeted the Srivijaya empire's commercial ports across the Malay Peninsula and Sumatra. Historians debate whether this campaign was primarily motivated by territorial ambition or by a strategic desire to disrupt Srivijayan control over Indian Ocean trade routes. Chola cultural influence also extended through the voluntary spread of Tamil language, Shaivite Hinduism, and distinctive bronze sculpture traditions to Southeast Asian courts, leaving an enduring legacy in the region's religious and artistic heritage.
Question 8. Complete the summary: At its height, the Chola Empire conducted a notable naval ________ against Srivijayan ports in 1025 CE, possibly aiming to break Srivijayan dominance over Indian Ocean ________ routes.
- A. expedition / trade
- B. campaign / maritime
- C. conquest / commercial
- D. assault / naval
Answer: A. "Naval expedition in 1025 CE" and "Indian Ocean trade routes" supply both words. B is tempting because "campaign" is also in the passage, but "maritime routes" is not what the text says. In summary completion, the grammar of the gap narrows the choice and the passage's own wording decides it.
Sentence completion
Passage. The domestication of rice in ancient China fundamentally transformed early agricultural societies across East and Southeast Asia. Archaeological evidence from the Yangtze River Delta suggests that cultivated rice varieties emerged as early as 7000 BCE, several thousand years before the crop spread to other parts of the continent. Unlike wild rice, domesticated strains were selectively bred to produce larger grains that remained attached to the plant until harvest, reducing loss and improving yield. This single modification allowed farming communities to store substantial food surpluses, which in turn supported the growth of larger, more complex settlements. Scholars argue that the development of rice agriculture was therefore a key precondition for the emergence of early urban civilisations in the region.
Question 9. The selective breeding of domesticated rice was particularly important because it produced grains that...
- A. stayed on the plant until they were harvested, reducing losses during the growing season.
- B. were smaller and easier to mill than those found in wild varieties.
- C. could be cultivated in drier climates further inland from river deltas.
- D. spread naturally across Southeast Asia without the need for human transportation.
Answer: A. A paraphrases "remained attached to the plant until harvest, reducing loss". B inverts "larger", and C and D are not in the text. The completed sentence must say what the passage says — plausible-sounding history is not evidence.
Matching features
Passage. The debate over language acquisition has long divided researchers. Noam Chomsky proposed the existence of a Language Acquisition Device (LAD) — an innate, biologically determined mechanism that enables children to acquire grammar universally. Steven Pinker built on this nativist view, arguing in 'The Language Instinct' that language is an evolved biological adaptation specific to humans. In contrast, Jerome Bruner emphasised the role of social interaction, coining the term Language Acquisition Support System (LASS) to describe how caregivers scaffold children's language development. B.F. Skinner's behaviourist account, meanwhile, held that language is acquired through imitation and reinforcement, with no need to posit innate structures.
Question 10. Match each idea with the researcher: (1) language learning occurs through copying others and receiving feedback; (2) a built-in mental structure accounts for children's universal ability to learn grammar; (3) adults and caregivers play a crucial role in supporting language development. Researchers: A Chomsky, B Pinker, C Bruner, D Skinner, E Piaget.
- A. 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – C
- B. 1 – A, 2 – D, 3 – C
- C. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A
- D. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D
Answer: A. Copying and feedback are Skinner's "imitation and reinforcement"; the built-in structure is Chomsky's Language Acquisition Device; caregiver support is Bruner's scaffolding. Pinker also holds a nativist view, which is why option C is tempting for idea 2 — but the "device" that explains universal grammar is attributed to Chomsky. Piaget is not in the passage at all: matching-features lists routinely include an option you will never use.
Multiple choice, one answer
Passage. The Great Barrier Reef, stretching over 2,300 kilometres along Australia's northeastern coastline, is the world's largest coral reef system and supports an extraordinary diversity of marine life. Tourism and fishing industries associated with the reef contribute an estimated six billion Australian dollars to the national economy annually. Despite its ecological and economic importance, the reef faces multiple threats. Rising ocean temperatures, linked to climate change, have caused repeated mass bleaching events, with major bleaching recorded in 1998, 2002, 2016, and 2017. Water quality has also declined due to agricultural runoff from Queensland farms carrying pesticides and excess nutrients into coastal waters. Researchers have warned that without significant reductions in greenhouse gas emissions, the reef's long-term survival cannot be guaranteed.
Question 11. What has caused repeated mass bleaching events on the Great Barrier Reef?
- A. Increased levels of agricultural pesticides in coastal waters.
- B. Rising ocean temperatures linked to climate change.
- C. Overfishing by commercial and recreational fishing industries.
- D. Physical damage caused by large volumes of tourist activity.
Answer: B. The passage attributes bleaching directly to rising temperatures. Agricultural runoff is a real threat in the text, but it is linked to water quality, not bleaching — A is a true statement that answers a different question, the most dangerous kind of distractor.
How to use practice like this
Score yourself by format, not by total. Eleven questions will not predict a band, but they will show you which format costs you marks — and each format has a fixed method. Then move to full-length sections under the clock: 60 minutes for 40 questions across three sections is where the method has to hold. For the time plan, see the IELTS Reading time strategy; for how raw marks become bands, see IELTS band scores explained; for the complete format of all four sections, see the IELTS Academic syllabus and test format.
Quick answers
Are there official IELTS previous year papers?
No. Live IELTS papers are not published, so any "previous year paper" is someone's reconstruction or practice material. Use practice written to the official formats.
How many questions are in IELTS Academic Reading?
Forty, in 60 minutes, across three sections totalling 2,150–2,750 words.
Is there negative marking in IELTS Reading?
The owners' scoring page awards one mark per correct answer and converts the number correct to a band; it describes no deduction for wrong answers. Answer every question.
How many correct answers do I need for Band 7 in Reading?
About 30 out of 40, by the owners' published example; 23 is about Band 6 and 35 about Band 8. The exact conversion varies slightly between test versions.
What is the difference between False and Not Given?
False means the passage says something that contradicts the statement; Not Given means the passage says nothing either way.
