Free OET mock test — all four sub-tests, AI-scored Writing and Speaking
One OET (Nursing & Medicine) paper in the real exam format: 87 questions across 4 timed sections, 2 hr 50 min on a server-controlled clock.
About the real exam The Occupational English Test (OET) is the English language test designed for healthcare professionals who want to register and practise in an English-speaking environment.
Free, reversible until you begin · one attempt per account · no retake, no card.
Device and setup checklist
- A stable internet connection for the full duration.
- A working microphone (speaking sections are recorded).
- Headphones or speakers (this paper plays audio).
- A laptop or desktop is recommended for the closest exam experience.
The paper, section by section
Navigation: sections run strictly in order and a completed section cannot be reopened.
Sample questions with worked answers
8 original practice questions written by Myndaq in the OET (Nursing & Medicine) style. They are not taken from this mock paper or from official past papers. Try each one, then open the answer.
- Question 1Reading Part AOne correct answer
Topic: Preventing pressure injuries on an acute medical ward
Text A - Risk assessment Every adult admitted to the ward needs a pressure injury risk score recorded within six hours of arrival, using the ward's approved scoring tool. Repeat the scoring whenever the patient's condition changes, after any procedure that kept the patient immobile for more than two hours, and at least once a week for anyone staying longer than seven days. Enter the score, the date and your name in the electronic care plan.
Text B - Checking the skin Look closely at the skin over the sacrum, hips, heels, elbows and the back of the head at each shift. In patients with darker skin tones, redness may be hard to see, so compare the area with nearby skin for warmth, firmness or a change in colour. Press lightly on any reddened patch: if the colour does not fade under your finger, treat the area as already damaged and tell the nurse in charge.
Text C - Changing position Patients at high risk who cannot move without help should be assisted to change position at least every four hours, or more often if their care plan says so. A 30-degree side tilt reduces pressure on the sacrum. When a patient comes back from theatre, check first that both heels are lifted clear of the mattress with a pillow placed under the calves.
Text D - Getting specialist help Contact the tissue viability team within 24 hours if you find a wound that extends through the full depth of the skin, a wound whose depth cannot be judged, or a deep purple area that suggests damage beneath intact skin. Any injury that develops after admission must also be logged in the incident reporting system before the end of your shift.
A patient has just come back to the ward after a three-hour operation. Which text tells you whether his pressure injury risk score needs to be recalculated?
- Text A
- Text B
- Text C
- Text D
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A
Text A lists the situations in which the score must be repeated, including 'after any procedure that kept the patient immobile for more than two hours'. A three-hour operation meets that condition, so Text A answers the question.
Text C is the tempting distractor because it mentions patients returning from theatre, but it only tells you to check that the heels are offloaded; it says nothing about rescoring. Text B covers skin inspection and Text D covers referral and incident reporting, so neither deals with repeating the risk score.
- Question 2Reading Part AType a numeric answer
Topic: Preventing pressure injuries on an acute medical ward
Text A - Risk assessment Every adult admitted to the ward needs a pressure injury risk score recorded within six hours of arrival, using the ward's approved scoring tool. Repeat the scoring whenever the patient's condition changes, after any procedure that kept the patient immobile for more than two hours, and at least once a week for anyone staying longer than seven days. Enter the score, the date and your name in the electronic care plan.
Text B - Checking the skin Look closely at the skin over the sacrum, hips, heels, elbows and the back of the head at each shift. In patients with darker skin tones, redness may be hard to see, so compare the area with nearby skin for warmth, firmness or a change in colour. Press lightly on any reddened patch: if the colour does not fade under your finger, treat the area as already damaged and tell the nurse in charge.
Text C - Changing position Patients at high risk who cannot move without help should be assisted to change position at least every four hours, or more often if their care plan says so. A 30-degree side tilt reduces pressure on the sacrum. When a patient comes back from theatre, check first that both heels are lifted clear of the mattress with a pillow placed under the calves.
Text D - Getting specialist help Contact the tissue viability team within 24 hours if you find a wound that extends through the full depth of the skin, a wound whose depth cannot be judged, or a deep purple area that suggests damage beneath intact skin. Any injury that develops after admission must also be logged in the incident reporting system before the end of your shift.
Unless the care plan states otherwise, what is the longest time, in hours, that a high-risk patient who cannot move without help should be left before being assisted to change position?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: 4
Text C states that high-risk patients who cannot move without help 'should be assisted to change position at least every four hours, or more often if their care plan says so'. The maximum interval is therefore 4 hours.
The other numbers in the texts answer different questions: 6 hours is the deadline for the first risk score (Text A), 2 hours is the length of immobility that triggers rescoring (Text A), and 24 hours is the time limit for contacting the tissue viability team (Text D).
- Question 3Reading Part BOne correct answer
Email to all ward nursing staff
Subject: Patients' own medicines - change to current practice
From next Monday, medicines that patients bring with them on admission should no longer be handed back to relatives as a matter of routine. Once the admitting nurse has checked the labels against the patient's details, the medicines are to be kept in the patient's locked bedside cabinet and used during the stay, provided the ward pharmacist confirms they are suitable. Items the pharmacist rejects, for example because they are past their expiry date, have no label or have been stopped by the medical team, must not be disposed of on the ward as happened previously. Place them in a sealed bag marked with the patient's name and send them to the pharmacy department.
What does the email say should happen to a patient's own medicine that is out of date?
- It should be given to the patient's relatives to take home.
- It should be sent to the pharmacy department in a labelled bag.
- It should be destroyed on the ward once a pharmacist has checked it.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B
The email says that items the pharmacist rejects, including those 'past their expiry date', must be placed 'in a sealed bag marked with the patient's name' and sent to the pharmacy department. Option B restates this.
Option A describes the routine practice that the email is ending. Option C is wrong because the email says rejected medicines 'must not be disposed of on the ward as happened previously'; destroying them on the ward was the old practice, not the new one.
- Question 4Reading Part BOne correct answer
Extract from an infection prevention guideline
Use of non-sterile gloves
Gloves reduce contamination of the hands but do not replace hand hygiene. Clean your hands before putting gloves on and immediately after taking them off. Gloves are not required for routine contact with a patient's intact skin, such as when recording blood pressure or helping someone to sit up, unless the patient is on contact precautions. When caring for one patient, remove your gloves, clean your hands and put on a new pair if you move from a contaminated body site, such as a wound or a catheter bag, to a clean one. Never wash or apply alcohol rub to gloved hands in order to reuse the same gloves.
According to the extract, gloves should be
- worn whenever a nurse touches a patient's skin.
- changed during the care of one patient in some circumstances.
- cleaned with alcohol rub before moving to another task.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B
The guideline says that, while caring for one patient, staff should remove their gloves, clean their hands and use a new pair when moving 'from a contaminated body site ... to a clean one'. So gloves must sometimes be changed within the care of a single patient, which is option B.
Option A contradicts the statement that gloves are not needed for routine contact with intact skin unless contact precautions apply. Option C contradicts the final sentence, which forbids applying alcohol rub to gloved hands to reuse the same gloves.
- Question 5Reading Part BOne correct answer
Notice on the staff intranet
Reporting near misses
A near miss is any event that could have harmed a patient but was noticed and stopped in time, such as a wrong dose picked up at the bedside check. Please record near misses in the same online system used for incidents. You are welcome to talk the event through with your line manager, but their approval is not needed before you submit a report. Reports are reviewed each week by the patient safety team, who look for patterns across departments. Information in a report will not be used to take disciplinary action against the person who submitted it, except where there is evidence that harm was caused deliberately.
The notice explains that a near-miss report
- must be agreed with a line manager before it is sent.
- is unlikely to lead to action being taken against the reporter.
- is only needed when a patient has actually been harmed.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B
The notice states that report information 'will not be used to take disciplinary action against the person who submitted it', with one exception for deliberate harm. Option B captures this reassurance.
Option A is wrong because staff may discuss the event with a manager but 'their approval is not needed'. Option C is wrong because a near miss is defined as an event that was stopped before it could harm the patient, so no actual harm is required for a report.
- Question 6Reading Part COne correct answer
For much of the past twenty years, adding a medicine has been the reflex response to a new symptom in an older person. Viewed one prescription at a time, the reasoning looks sound: each drug targets a measurable problem and is usually backed by trial data. Yet those trials seldom recruited people in their late eighties living with five or six long-term conditions, and the benefits they reported tended to build up over periods that some of these patients will not live to see. Deprescribing, meaning the planned and monitored withdrawal of drugs whose risks have come to exceed their value, is still sometimes described as a way of saving money or, less kindly, as a form of giving up. Both descriptions miss the point. Stopping a medicine safely calls for as much skill as starting one: the clinician must know which drugs need to be reduced gradually, which symptoms may come back, and how much the patient values a modest gain in lifespan compared with tablets that leave them unsteady every morning.
What point does the writer make about the clinical trials referred to in the paragraph?
- Prescribers have tended to misreport their results.
- Their findings may not apply well to many very elderly patients.
- They showed that the benefits of treatment appear quickly.
- They underestimated the harm of combining several medicines.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B
The writer notes that the trials 'seldom recruited people in their late eighties living with five or six long-term conditions' and that their benefits appeared over long periods some patients will not live to see. The implication is that the evidence does not transfer well to very old, multimorbid patients, so B is correct.
A is not mentioned: the writer questions how the evidence applies, not how it was reported. C is the opposite of the text, which says benefits 'tended to build up over periods' of time. D is tempting because the paragraph is about multiple medicines, but the writer never claims the trials measured or underestimated interaction harms.
- Question 7Reading Part COne correct answer
When structured handover tools first arrived on hospital wards, their attraction was their simplicity. A fixed order of headings, supporters argued, would stop key details from being lost between one shift and the next. Early audits seemed to bear this out, recording fewer omissions of basic facts such as allergies and resuscitation decisions. More recent observational research presents a less tidy picture. In several studies, nurses described filling in every heading on the form while leaving out the one concern that was genuinely troubling them: a patient who simply 'did not look right'. The template, in other words, had become a destination rather than a starting point. None of this is an argument for abandoning structure altogether. What it suggests is that the tool performs best when senior staff present it as a prompt for conversation, openly encouraging the nurse coming on duty to ask what is worrying the colleague who is about to leave.
What does the phrase 'a destination rather than a starting point' suggest about the handover template?
- Staff treated completing it as the aim in itself.
- It was being filled in too late in the shift to help.
- It sent nurses to the wrong sources of information.
- It contained too many headings to finish in the time available.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A
The sentence before the phrase describes nurses completing every heading yet omitting their real worry. Calling the template 'a destination' means that finishing the form had become the goal, rather than a basis ('a starting point') for further discussion. That is option A.
B misreads 'destination' as a point in time; the paragraph says nothing about when the form was completed. C and D introduce ideas (wrong information sources, excessive length) that the writer never raises.
- Question 8Reading Part COne correct answer
When structured handover tools first arrived on hospital wards, their attraction was their simplicity. A fixed order of headings, supporters argued, would stop key details from being lost between one shift and the next. Early audits seemed to bear this out, recording fewer omissions of basic facts such as allergies and resuscitation decisions. More recent observational research presents a less tidy picture. In several studies, nurses described filling in every heading on the form while leaving out the one concern that was genuinely troubling them: a patient who simply 'did not look right'. The template, in other words, had become a destination rather than a starting point. None of this is an argument for abandoning structure altogether. What it suggests is that the tool performs best when senior staff present it as a prompt for conversation, openly encouraging the nurse coming on duty to ask what is worrying the colleague who is about to leave.
What is the writer's overall view of structured handover tools?
- They should gradually be replaced by informal discussion.
- Their early benefits were exaggerated by poorly designed audits.
- They remain useful when they are used to support conversation.
- They are mainly valuable for recording allergies and resuscitation decisions.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C
The writer states that the research is 'not an argument for abandoning structure altogether' and concludes that the tool 'performs best' when it is presented as 'a prompt for conversation'. This balanced, supportive view matches option C.
A contradicts the refusal to abandon structure. B is tempting because the writer says early audits only 'seemed' to confirm the benefit, but the design of those audits is never criticised. D picks out a detail from the early audits and turns it into the writer's main conclusion, which it is not.
Scored instantly, or scored by AI
84 questions are scored automatically against the paper key the moment you submit.
1 written task and 2 recorded speaking prompts are scored by AI. These scores are estimates, provided as-is, and can arrive after your objective result.
What you get back
You get your raw marks and per-section scores. No scaled score, band, rank or percentile is estimated for this paper.
- Scored out of 111 raw marks, with per-section totals.
- There is no negative marking anywhere in this paper.
- AI-scored tasks are estimates provided as-is, and can arrive after your objective result.
How the real OET (Nursing & Medicine) bands are read
OET reports a separate score for each of the four sub-tests, from 0 to 500 in 10-point steps, each mapped to a letter grade A-E. There is no overall or averaged score. Most healthcare regulators require Grade B (350) in every sub-test, though some accept a mix (for example B in three and C+ in one).
- A (450-500)Can communicate very fluently and effectively with patients and health professionals.
- B (350-440)Communicates effectively with only occasional inaccuracies. The benchmark most regulators require.
- C+ (300-340)Maintains interaction despite errors; accepted by some regulators for some sub-tests.
- D (100-190)Limited ability to communicate in healthcare settings.
- E (0-90)Very limited healthcare communication.
Context only - this free mock returns: You get your raw marks and per-section scores. No scaled score, band, rank or percentile is estimated for this paper.
Notes on the OET (Nursing & Medicine)
Notes on the real OET (Nursing & Medicine).
Presentation
The Occupational English Test (OET) is the English language test designed for healthcare professionals who want to register and practise in an English-speaking environment. Unlike general English tests, OET uses real healthcare scenarios - patient consultations, workplace extracts, case notes and clinical role-plays - so it assesses the communication you actually use at work.
Assessment
All four OET sub-tests in the current official formats: Listening (~40 min - Part A consultation note completion, Part B short workplace extracts, Part C presentations and interviews), Reading (60 min - Part A a 15-minute expeditious reading task, Part B short workplace texts, Part C long texts), Writing (45 min - one profession-specific letter from case notes) and Speaking (~20 min - two interlocutor-led role-plays). v1 focuses on the Nursing and Medicine professions; other professions differ only in the writing and speaking content, not in the exam structure.
Indicated for
- Internationally-educated nurses seeking registration with the NMC (UK), NMBA/AHPRA (Australia), NMBI (Ireland) or Nursing Council NZ.
- Internationally-trained doctors targeting GMC (UK), the Medical Board of Australia or equivalent registration.
- Healthcare professionals who prefer a profession-specific English test over a general academic one.
- Candidates who need Grade B (350) in each sub-test to meet a regulator requirement.
Plan
- Target Grade B (350) in each sub-test separately - there is no composite score, so a weak sub-test cannot be carried by the others.
- Drill Listening Part A note completion: the audio plays once, so train accurate spelling of names, medications, dosages and dates on first listen.
- Practise the Reading Part A speed-reading task against the strict 15-minute clock; skim and scan across the four texts rather than reading in full.
- Write timed letters to a set word range from case notes; select only the relevant information and match register, purpose and layout for the reader.
- Rehearse the two role-plays from the card: address the patient's concerns, use the prompts, and manage the interaction empathetically.
Outcome
- OET grades that meet nursing or medical regulator requirements for registration in the UK, Australia, Ireland, New Zealand and beyond.
- Confident, patient-centred English communication across listening, reading, professional letters and clinical role-plays.
- A profession-specific alternative to general academic English tests, mapped to CEFR levels.
Figures about the real exam, as recorded in the Myndaq course. They describe the real sitting, not this free mock paper - check current details with the exam body before you book.
Figures above are as reported for the cycle named in each row and are refreshed each cycle. Sourced, dated facts for this exam (official links on every row) are on the OET (Nursing & Medicine) course page.
How this mirrors the real format
- The paper structure is the real format: 4 sections in exam order, 87 questions in total.
- Timing is server-controlled for the full 2 hr 50 min -- closing the tab does not pause the clock, exactly like our paid mock series.
- Marking follows the published paper: the per-section marks shown in the paper map are the marks the scorer applies.
- Sections run strictly in order and a completed section cannot be reopened.
- Break windows fall where the paper schedules them, and each one is shown in the paper map.
"Real format" means the paper shape, timing, marking and navigation above - not the official exam software, its visual identity, or any affiliation with the exam body.
What differs or is limited
- This free mock covers every section of the real exam format. Speaking is trimmed to at most 2 prompts and writing to 1 task; the paid mock includes the full task set. AI-scored sections are estimates and are provided as-is. Audio you record is deleted within 30 days.
One attempt, explicitly
Adding this mock to your account is free and reversible - you can change the exam any time before you begin. Only the confirmed Begin action uses your one attempt. No retake, no reset, no card.